G
Guest
i set a iframe in b.aspx,and if set it as
<iframe id=â€frm1†src=â€xxxxxxxxxxxxxx.aspx?para1=<%=var1%>â€></iframe>
,on some client pc the iframe can not be rendered to ie.and the result of
'view source' of b.aspx,i can noly file a '</iframe>' tag ,the '<iframe
id...' lost.
but if set the iframe as <iframe id=â€frm1†src=â€â€></iframe> and use a js to
set its src dynamiclly like this
<script language=â€javascriptâ€>
var ifrm = document.getElementById(“frm1â€);
if (typeof(ifrm) != ‘undefined’ && ifrm != null)
{
ifrm.src=†xxxxxxxxxxxxxx.aspx?para1=<%=var1%>â€;
}
</script>
,everything goes ok.
why? is there any difference between the two way?
<iframe id=â€frm1†src=â€xxxxxxxxxxxxxx.aspx?para1=<%=var1%>â€></iframe>
,on some client pc the iframe can not be rendered to ie.and the result of
'view source' of b.aspx,i can noly file a '</iframe>' tag ,the '<iframe
id...' lost.
but if set the iframe as <iframe id=â€frm1†src=â€â€></iframe> and use a js to
set its src dynamiclly like this
<script language=â€javascriptâ€>
var ifrm = document.getElementById(“frm1â€);
if (typeof(ifrm) != ‘undefined’ && ifrm != null)
{
ifrm.src=†xxxxxxxxxxxxxx.aspx?para1=<%=var1%>â€;
}
</script>
,everything goes ok.
why? is there any difference between the two way?