E
Edward Yang
In my test, I have two web applications app1 and app2, and I configure
them as follows in IIS:
$/comboapps
|--web.config
|--bin
| app1.dll
| app2.dll
|--app1
| form1.aspx
| web.config
|--app2
| form1.aspx
| web.config
(Of course, I have to remove authentication, authorization, sessionstate
tags from web.config in app1 and app2.)
In this way both apps share the same session because they are in one IIS
application.
Things work well for me so far. But I have some uncertainties:
1. What should I do with each global.asax file in app1 and app2?
2. Is this method supported by Microsoft (I can't draw a conclusion by
reading documentation)?
3. What is the logic of Configuration.AppSettings("somename") in the
above scenario? Does the Framework check the web.config in app root first?
Great thanks if someone can sort my head out for a bit.
them as follows in IIS:
$/comboapps
|--web.config
|--bin
| app1.dll
| app2.dll
|--app1
| form1.aspx
| web.config
|--app2
| form1.aspx
| web.config
(Of course, I have to remove authentication, authorization, sessionstate
tags from web.config in app1 and app2.)
In this way both apps share the same session because they are in one IIS
application.
Things work well for me so far. But I have some uncertainties:
1. What should I do with each global.asax file in app1 and app2?
2. Is this method supported by Microsoft (I can't draw a conclusion by
reading documentation)?
3. What is the logic of Configuration.AppSettings("somename") in the
above scenario? Does the Framework check the web.config in app root first?
Great thanks if someone can sort my head out for a bit.