R
Richard D. Moores
For the first time in my 7 years of using Gmail, I accidentally
deleted my original post and it's one reply by casevh. I found both in
the list archive, and with this post both quote casevh's reply and
answer it. Sorry about my screw up.
The math is correct. The proof only asserts that sum(1/k^2) is between
the upper and lower partial sums. The upper and lower partial sums
both converge to pi^2/6 from below and since the sum(1/k^2) is between
the two partial sums, it must also converge to pi^2/6.
Try calculating sum(1/k^2) for k in range(1, 2**n) and compare that
with the upper and lower sums. I verified it with several values up to
n=20.
casevh
===================Dick Moores' reply===================
Thank you! I had missed the 2^n -1 on the top of the sigma (see my
image of the inequality expression at
<http://www.rcblue.com/images/PinchingForEuler.jpg>.
So I rewrote the script and now it does what I intended -- show the
pinching down on sum(1/k^2) by the upper sums and the lower sums for
successively larger n. See the new script at
<http://pastebin.com/PGXx7raq>.
Dick
deleted my original post and it's one reply by casevh. I found both in
the list archive, and with this post both quote casevh's reply and
answer it. Sorry about my screw up.
I saw an interesting proof of the limit of The Euler Series on
math.stackexchange.com at
<http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/8337/different-methods-to-com...>.
Scroll down to Hans Lundmark's post.
I thought I'd try to see this "pinching down" on the limit of pi**2/6.
See my attempt, and output for n = 150 at
<http://pastebin.com/pvznFWsT>. What puzzles me is that
upper_bound_partial_sum (lines 39 and 60) is always smaller than the
limit. It should be greater than the limit, right? If not, no pinching
between upper_bound_partial_sum and lower_bound_partial_sum.
I've checked and double-checked the computation, but can't figure out
what's wrong.
Thanks,
Dick Moores
The math is correct. The proof only asserts that sum(1/k^2) is between
the upper and lower partial sums. The upper and lower partial sums
both converge to pi^2/6 from below and since the sum(1/k^2) is between
the two partial sums, it must also converge to pi^2/6.
Try calculating sum(1/k^2) for k in range(1, 2**n) and compare that
with the upper and lower sums. I verified it with several values up to
n=20.
casevh
===================Dick Moores' reply===================
Thank you! I had missed the 2^n -1 on the top of the sigma (see my
image of the inequality expression at
<http://www.rcblue.com/images/PinchingForEuler.jpg>.
So I rewrote the script and now it does what I intended -- show the
pinching down on sum(1/k^2) by the upper sums and the lower sums for
successively larger n. See the new script at
<http://pastebin.com/PGXx7raq>.
Dick