You claim it's a "basic idea". Can you explain it with mathematical
precision and yet in a way that a basic person like me can understand?
I suspect you'll find that the task is harder than it looks.
On the off-chance that you really are interested in expanding your mind,
I'll give it a go.
First of all, the term "measure" is a bit arcane - whenever you see it,
think "way of defining the integral of a function". The basic problem
is: we have an intuitive notion of what the integral should be, namely
the (signed) area under the graph of the function. How can we turn this
into a rigorous mathematical definition? (I hope there's no need to
convince you that calculus is an extremely useful thing in all sorts of
engineering etc., so being able to put integration on a solid foundation
is important.)
How would you work out the area under a curve? One way would be to draw
the curve on squared paper, and count the number of squares in the
region under the curve. Of course, the curve may actually pass through
some of the squares, so in that case you'd need to decide whether to
include those squares in your count or not. This would give you an upper
bound (when you include the extra squares) and a lower bound (when you
don't include them) for the area under the curve: you just multiply the
number of squares you counted by the area of each square.
Now you could do the same thing with more finely divided squared papers.
This would give you another, better, upper and lower bound for the area
you're interested in. And then you could use even finer paper again, and
get better bounds, and so on. And you could imagine taking a limit, as
the squares get "infinitely fine". If the limiting upper and lower
bounds agree, you could consider that to be a reasonable value for the
area under the curve.
This is essentially the "Riemann integral".
It works just fine if the curve you're trying to find the area under is
nice enough (say the graph of a continuous function on a bounded
interval). But it has some shortcomings.
For example, consider the function f on the interval [0,1] that takes
value 1 on rational numbers, and 0 on irrational numbers. Intuitively,
there should be no area under this function, since the rationals are "so
sparse" in the reals. But because any interval (in this case, the
horizontal side of any of your squares) contains a rational, any squared
paper you use to measure the area will give you an upper bound of 1, and
a lower bound of 0. As these disagree (in the limit as the squares get
finer), the function f is not integrable in the Riemann sense.
OK, you may say, but f seems like a pretty artificial sort of function
that's been constructed to screw up the definition, and it would never
actually arise in real life. But here's why f is interesting. Enumerate
the rationals in [0,1], say as q_0, q_1, ..., and consider the functions
f_n, where f_n(q_i) = 1 for i=0,...,n and f_n is zero everywhere else.
Each of these functions is Riemann integrable with integral 0 (exercise
for the reader), and the f_n converge to f in an obvious sense
("pointwise convergence"). So we've taken a limit of integrable
functions, and hit something non-integrable!
That ties our hands if we're doing calculus. We'd really like to be able
to "swap" limits and integrals under mild assumptions, and say
lim Int f_n(x) dx = Int lim f_n(x) dx (*)
n->infty n->infty
The above example shows that the Riemann integral is bad for this sort
of thing: not only do the two sides not have to be equal, but even if
the f_n are nice functions, the right hand side need not even exist!
So the point of Lebesgue measure is to give a more general definition of
the integral of a function with better properties with respect to limits
and other things. It should agree with our intuitive squared paper
definition for "nice" functions, but it should be robust enough to cope
with limiting constructions we want to perform when doing calculations.
As you've found by reading the (not exactly enlightening) Wikipedia
article, it's a bit complicated to construct Lebesgue measure, but
that's because once you /have/ constructed it, it's very powerful, and
you don't get something for nothing in this world. In fact, if you
accept the above as motivation, once you strip away the technicalities
you'll find that the Lebesgue integral is defined exactly in such a way
as to make (*) true in the case when (f_n) is a non-decreasing sequence
of positive integrable functions. (And in that case, (*) is called the
Monotone Convergence Theorem.)